We define the Lyaponov exponent $\lambda$ as
\[|\delta_n| = |\delta_0|e^{\lambda n}\]Noting that
\[|\delta_n| = F^n(x+\delta) -F^n(\delta)\]Hence,
\[\lambda = \frac{1}{n}\ln\frac{F^n(x+\delta x) -F^n(x)}{\delta_0} = \frac{1}{n}ln |(F^n)'(x)|\]And using Chain rule,
\[|(F^n)'| = \prod_{i=1}^n |F'(x_i)|\]Here, we have shifted the derivative of the nth iterate to the product of derivatives over the trajectory.
Finally,
\[\lambda = \lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \ln|F'(x_i)|\]Clearly,
$\lambda$ depends on $x_0$, but for a particular basin of attraction, it is same. This is because all points in this basin finally reach the same orbit, and in large n limit, the transince period does not matter.
$\lambda < 0$ is stable points and $\lambda > 0$ is Chaotic.
$\lambda = \ln 0 = -\infty$ is super stable.
For the tent map, $\lambda = \ln 2$
For logistic map however, the $\lambda$ depends on $x$
\[\lambda = \frac{1}{n}\prod_i^n \ln(|r-2rx|)\]For example,
$f(x, r) = r - x^2$
$R_0$ must also be a period 1 cycle.
$x^* = R_0 - x^{*2}$
$f’(x^*, R_0) = 0$
Hence, $x^* = 0$, and hence,
\[R_0 = 0\]$R_1$ must be cycle 2, and super stable at two points.
Let $x_1$ and $x_2$ be the cycle,
$F’(x_1)*F’(x_2) = 0 \implies 4x_1x_2 = 0$, and hence, wlog $x_1 = 0$
Now, from the period 2 condition,
$F^2(0, r) = r - r^2 = 0\implies r = 0$ or $r=1$. But $R_0=0$, and hence, $R_1=1$
All period 2 cycles are self similar, and we can compare $f(x, R_0)$ and $f^2(x, R_1)$
At the maxima, unimodal maps have a order 2 approximation. Hence we can
Hence
\[f(x, R_0) = \alpha f^2(x/\alpha, R_1)\]We can repeat this and more generally,
\[f(x, R_0) = \alpha^n f^{2n}(x/\alpha^n, R_n)\]Taking the limit of $n\to \infty$
\[\lim_{n\to\infty} \alpha^n f^{2n}(x/\alpha^n, R_n) = g_0(x)\]Is this function $g_0$ independant of $f$? Turns out this is true because we are blowing up smaller and smaller sections of the function ($x\to x/\alpha^n$) and ignoring the rest.
However, $g_0$ does depend on the order of $f$
Instead of starting from $f(x, R_0)$, we can start with other $i$
\[\alpha^nf^{2n}(x/\alpha^n, R_{i+n})\]Taking $i\to \infty$, this reduces to
\[f(x, R_\infty) = \alpha^n f^{2n}(x/\alpha^n, R_\infty) = g(x)\]Taking $n = 1$ we get the self referential equation,
\[g(x) = \alpha g^2(x/\alpha)\]By setting $g’(0) = 0$ ($x_m=0$), and $g(0) = 1$ (we can scale accordingly).
Hence, $g(0) = \alpha g^2(0) \implies 1 = \alpha g(1) \implies$
\[\alpha = 1/g(1)\]Finding $g$ however is difficult, but we can solve this using power laws.
\[g(x) = 1 + c_2x^2 + c_4x^4+\dots\]By putting this back into the self referential equation and matching terms, we get $g$